For which $p$ and $r$ is the equation $\Pi_p(L^r,\cdot)=I_p(L^r,\cdot)$ true?
Zapiski Nauchnykh Seminarov POMI, Investigations on linear operators and function theory. Part XI, Tome 113 (1981), pp. 237-242
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It is explained when the classes of $p$-absolutely summing and $p$-integral operators given on the space $L^r(\mu)$ coincide. For a Banach space $X$ there is considered the following subset of the real line: $$ J_X\stackrel{\mathrm{def}}=\{p\colon1\le p<\infty,\ \Pi_p(X,Y)=I_p(X,Y)\ \forall Y\}. $$ In the case when $X$ is an infinite-dimensional subspace of the space $L^r(\mu)$, it is proved that $J_X=(1,2]$ if $1\le r\le2$, and $J_X=\{2\}$ if $2 and $X$ is not isomorphic with a Hilbert space.